after reading your coment a thought just poped into my head ( and its just a thought, not what i actually think ). what if back in the day and i mean 1000's of years ago there was such thing as magic and over the ages the knowleg was lost some how and thats why since in the last 2 or 3 hundread or so years we've been developing more and more technology and all that stuff cause we lost the secret of magic.
another thought that goes with this is if you think about some of the storys from the bible like moses parting the red sea and all that sounds like magic to me or they were all on drugs lol like jesus turning water to wine could have been he just gave every one shroom tea or some thing like that and just made them think the water was turned to wine
...or that it's mainly "metaphors" for something else that was well understood then, but the secondary meaning has been lost.
One explanation for a few "miracles" is that by distributing water/bread, the majority of those who did have enough wine/food for their own personal use, and perhaps a bit more to share, were wiling to pull out their personal supplies and give some to the few neighbors who didn't have anything. In an age where you had to carry food and water for emergencies (no McDonald's anywhere in the area), most of them probably had a wine flask (water was questionable due to bacteria) and basic rations. It's a matter of brilliant psychology, not magic.
Most of the ancient literature (of any culture) can be taken from either a religious or a non-religious viewpoint, and still make sense if you understand the circumstances or the nuances of the language. Sadly, most of it is no longer understood, or only partially so. The few tidbits and glimpses into the metaphors, innuendo, intentional vagueness, and hidden meanings that we do know about are intriguing, though.
There's a reference in Gilgamesh often taken to refer to "casting a spell on" another character in the story, allowing them to kill that character, where the meaning could very well be "brought within his juristiction", allowing him to kill the character without repercussions. Another refers to attacking a character when his "magical defenses" were down to only a couple, which could also have been a reference to "personal bodyguards" at that time. Words don't always mean the same thing, and the context changes with events. When there are two possible meanings in ancient literature, one based on magic and one not, is there any reason to believe one over the other? On the other hand, if magic was real, and was lost, it would make equal sense.